Under that framework, could it be argued that the murderer has implicitly consented by committing an act they should have reasonably foreseen would result in their own death?
(Not well thought out here, just trying this argument on for size)
Depends. Is it okay to sell oneself into slavery? Some radical right libertarians will answer that question positively, but even for libertarians this is a fringe position.
(Not well thought out here, just trying this argument on for size)